Questions & Answers
28 April 2026 — Current Affairs Questions with Answers for UPSC, SSC, Banking & MPSC
Practice 116 current affairs questions with answers from 28 April 2026 for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams. All questions are sourced from The Hindu & Indian Express with detailed explanations for effective revision.
This page contains 116 current affairs questions with answers from 28 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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Take the 28 April 2026 Quiz →28 April 2026 — Questions with Answers
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023, is which Constitutional Amendment Act?
- A.103rd Amendment Act
- B.104th Amendment Act
- C.105th Amendment Act
- D.106th Amendment Act✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The Women's Reservation Bill was enacted as the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023. The 103rd Amendment introduced EWS quota, the 104th dealt with Anglo-Indian representation, and the 105th restored state power on OBC lists.
Consider the following statements regarding the Women's Reservation Bill:
1. It mandates one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and all State Legislative Assemblies.
2. The reservation includes a sub-quota for women from Other Backward Classes within the 33% seats.
3. The implementation of the Act is contingent upon the delimitation of constituencies based on the first Census conducted after its enactment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the law reserves 33% seats in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. Statement 2 is incorrect because the law provides a sub-quota for SC/ST women but explicitly excludes an OBC sub-quota. Statement 3 is correct as the Act's commencement is tied to delimitation after the next Census.
According to the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) report cited in the article, what was the percentage of seats held by women in India's Parliament in 2025?
- A.7.2%
- B.11.3%
- C.13.8%✓ Correct Answer
- D.27.2%
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Explanation
The IPU report 'Women in parliament 1995-2025' states India's representation rose from 7.2% in 1995 to 13.8% in 2025. 7.2% is the 1995 figure, 11.3% is the global figure for 1995, and 27.2% is the global average for 2025.
What is the primary constitutional reason cited in the article for the delayed implementation of the Women's Reservation Act, 2023?
- A.Pending ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
- B.A legal challenge pending before the Supreme Court.
- C.Its implementation is linked to the delimitation exercise post the next Census.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The need for a Presidential ordinance to operationalize it.
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the law 'awaits delimitation of constituencies — a process linked to the forthcoming Census — before it can take effect.' The other options are not mentioned as reasons for the delay in the provided text.
The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) is headquartered in which city?
- A.Mysuru
- B.New Delhi✓ Correct Answer
- C.Belem
- D.St Petersburg
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) is headquartered in New Delhi. It was launched by PM Modi in Mysuru in 2023, but its headquarters are in New Delhi.
Consider the following statements regarding the news topics:
1. The government's consideration for mandating sovereign cloud for critical sectors was prompted by Microsoft blocking Nayara Energy's IT services.
2. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) currently has 24 member countries, with Kazakhstan, Namibia and Thailand having observer status.
3. India's fuel pricing system for petrol and diesel is currently a fully market-based system with no government controls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Nayara block was a 'wakeup call'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's details on IBCA membership. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article describes the current system as 'managed deregulation', operating in a 'grey zone' and not fully market-based.
According to the article, what percentage of India's petroleum product consumption is met through imports?
- A.75%
- B.84%✓ Correct Answer
- C.95%
- D.100%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'India imports 84% of the petroleum products consumed in the country'. The 75% figure refers to 2000-01, and 95% refers to 2016-17.
What is the primary objective behind the government's proposed mandate for 'Made in India' sovereign cloud systems in critical sectors?
- A.To reduce costs for Indian companies
- B.To promote Indian software exports
- C.To reduce dependence on foreign providers and strengthen data security✓ Correct Answer
- D.To comply with international data privacy regulations
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Explanation
The article states the move is aimed at 'reducing dependence on foreign cloud providers and strengthening data security', ensuring control over sensitive data and resilience against disruptions. Cost reduction and exports are not the primary drivers mentioned.
B.R. Ambedkar served as the Labour Member in which colonial-era governing body?
- A.The Governor-General's Council
- B.The Viceroy's Executive Council✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Secretary of State's Council
- D.The Legislative Assembly
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Explanation
The article explicitly states Ambedkar was appointed as the Labour Member in the Viceroy's Executive Council in 1942. This was the central executive government of British India before independence.
Consider the following statements regarding B.R. Ambedkar's contributions to labour legislation:
1. He introduced the reduction of working hours from 12 to 8 hours during his tenure as Labour Member.
2. He chaired the first Tripartite Labour Conference in 1942, which aimed at formulating a uniform labour code.
3. The Labour Investigation Committee, which he formed, only investigated conditions in the coal and cotton industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct: the 1942 conference aimed at a uniform labour code. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the Labour Investigation Committee (1944) extended its inquiry beyond coal and cotton into a wide range of previously neglected sectors.
According to the amendments introduced under Ambedkar's influence, to what period was the maternity benefit extended for women workers?
- A.12 weeks
- B.14 weeks
- C.16 weeks✓ Correct Answer
- D.18 weeks
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Explanation
The article specifies that amendments in 1943 and 1945 extended the period of maternity benefit to 16 weeks (10 weeks before childbirth and 6 weeks after). The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What was a primary constitutional outcome of B.R. Ambedkar's work on labour legislation, as mentioned in the article?
- A.The inclusion of Fundamental Rights related to trade unions.
- B.The incorporation of principles for worker welfare into the Directive Principles of State Policy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The creation of a separate chapter on Labour in the Union List.
- D.The establishment of a National Commission for Labour.
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Explanation
The article directly links Ambedkar's pre-independence work to the Directive Principles, specifically citing Articles 39 and 43 which direct the state to ensure livelihood, equal pay, a living wage, and decent work conditions. The other bodies or lists are not mentioned as direct outcomes in the provided text.
As per the Supreme Court order, which body is responsible for assigning a dedicated legal team in death sentence confirmation references?
- A.The concerned High Court
- B.The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
- C.The Legal Services Committee concerned✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Supreme Court Registry
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Explanation
The Supreme Court order explicitly states that 'in every death sentence confirmation reference... the Legal Services Committee concerned shall assign a dedicated legal team.' This refers to the state or district-level committees constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's April 2026 order on death penalty cases:
1. It mandates that trial courts must call for reports on aggravating and mitigating circumstances before determining the sentence.
2. If such a report is not called for by the trial court, the Supreme Court must mandatorily call for it at the appeal stage.
3. The order requires the assigned legal team for a convict to include a Senior Counsel and advocates with at least 5 years of practice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; if the trial court doesn't call for the report, the High Court (not the Supreme Court) must call for it at the stage of admission of the death reference. Statement 3 is incorrect; the minimum practice requirement for advocates is 7 years, not 5 years.
What is the minimum number of years of practice required for advocates (other than the Senior Counsel) assigned to a convict in a death sentence confirmation reference, as per the Supreme Court order?
- A.5 years
- B.7 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.10 years
- D.12 years
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Explanation
The Supreme Court order specifies that the dedicated legal team must comprise 'at least two advocates having a minimum of 7 years practice.' The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's directive to call for reports on aggravating and mitigating circumstances at the trial court stage itself?
- A.To speed up the overall judicial process by reducing the number of appeals.
- B.To enable a timely, informed, and constitutionally compliant sentencing exercise based on comprehensive data.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To shift the entire burden of investigation from the police to the judiciary.
- D.To ensure that the death penalty is awarded more frequently by standardizing the process.
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Explanation
The Court stated that delayed consideration of these factors undermines a balanced sentencing process. Calling for reports at the trial stage aims to collect essential information early to aid courts in making a proper and informed determination on the sentence, aligning with reformative principles.
Which constitutional article is fundamentally protected by the Supreme Court's emphasis on 'proof beyond reasonable doubt' in criminal cases?
- A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
- B.Article 19 (Freedom of Speech)
- C.Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
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Explanation
The Supreme Court has held that the right to a fair trial and protection against wrongful conviction is an integral part of Article 21. The principle of 'proof beyond reasonable doubt' is a crucial procedural safeguard to protect an individual's life and liberty from arbitrary state action.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment:
1. The Court acquitted the accused because the prosecution's case, while possibly true, did not meet the standard of being 'must be true'.
2. The judgment held that the 'last seen together' theory is sufficient by itself to establish guilt in a murder case.
3. The Bench emphasized that in cases based on circumstantial evidence, every link in the chain must be firmly established.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Court drew a sharp line between 'may be true' (suspicion) and 'must be true' (proof). Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court specifically cautioned against over-reliance on the 'last seen together' doctrine, stating it does not by itself lead to the conclusion of guilt. Statement 3 is correct as the Court reiterated the settled principle for convicting on circumstantial evidence.
In which year did the Karnataka High Court uphold the conviction of the accused in the murder case that was recently overturned by the Supreme Court?
- A.2019
- B.2020
- C.2021✓ Correct Answer
- D.2022
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Explanation
The article states that the Karnataka High Court upheld the conviction in December 2021. The Supreme Court heard the appeal and delivered its acquittal judgment in 2026.
What is the primary legal implication of the Supreme Court's distinction between 'may be true' and 'must be true' in this judgment?
- A.It lowers the burden of proof required for the prosecution in criminal trials.
- B.It reinforces the high threshold of 'proof beyond reasonable doubt' that the prosecution must cross.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It allows courts to convict based on strong suspicion even in the absence of concrete proof.
- D.It shifts the burden of proof from the prosecution to the accused in serious offences.
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Explanation
The core ruling is that suspicion, however strong, cannot replace proof. By stating that the prosecution's case must be 'must be true' and not merely 'may be true', the Court reaffirmed the stringent standard of 'proof beyond reasonable doubt' required under Indian criminal law for a conviction.
Which commission has taken suo motu cognisance of the student suicides at NIT Kurukshetra, as per the article?
- A.National Human Rights Commission
- B.Haryana Human Rights Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.University Grants Commission
- D.National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Haryana Human Rights Commission has taken suo motu cognisance of the tragedies at NIT Kurukshetra and initiated an inquiry. This is a state-level commission.
Consider the following statements regarding the student suicide crisis discussed in the article:
1. According to the NCRB 2023 report, student suicides in India reached a record high, showing a 65% increase over the past five years.
2. The Supreme Court issued directives in 2025 for institutionalizing mental-health support across schools, colleges, hostels, and coaching centers.
3. Preliminary findings into the NIT Kurukshetra suicides suggest reasons like academic stress and debt due to online gambling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the article mentions a 65% increase over the past decade, not five years. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of the Supreme Court's 2025 directives. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists academic stress and online gambling debt among the preliminary findings.
According to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) 2023 report cited in the article, what was the recorded number of student suicides in India?
- A.10,732
- B.12,526
- C.13,892✓ Correct Answer
- D.15,414
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the NCRB 2023 report recorded student suicides at a record high of 13,892. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is identified as a key systemic factor contributing to the student mental health crisis in premier institutions like IITs and NITs, beyond just academic stress?
- A.Lack of qualified faculty members
- B.Inadequate physical infrastructure in hostels
- C.The paucity of seats and a precarious job market✓ Correct Answer
- D.Excessive focus on sports and extracurricular activities
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that overlaying the issue of academic pressure is 'the paucity of seats in premier institutions and an increasingly precarious job market'. This highlights a structural issue of limited opportunity and future insecurity that exacerbates student anxiety.
The 'Udyog Vishwas' policy framework mentioned in the article is an initiative of which state government?
- A.Government of Maharashtra
- B.Government of Uttar Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Government of Gujarat
- D.Government of Karnataka
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Explanation
The article is written by the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh and details the state's 'Udyog Vishwas' policy framework, which is built on decriminalisation, deregulation, and digitisation.
Consider the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh's development strategy as mentioned in the article:
1. The first phase focused on restoring law and order, aiming to create a 'bhay mukt pradesh'.
2. The state has constructed the Purvanchal, Bundelkhand, and Ganga expressways as part of its infrastructure push.
3. The 'Udyog Vishwas' framework is built on the pillars of Demonetisation, Digitalisation, and Deregulation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states making a 'bhay mukt pradesh' was the foremost goal. Statement 2 is correct as these three expressways are explicitly mentioned. Statement 3 is incorrect because the three pillars are Decriminalisation, Deregulation, and Digitisation, not Demonetisation.
According to the article, what is the reported decline in crime rates in Uttar Pradesh that has laid the foundation for economic growth?
- A.30%
- B.40%
- C.50%✓ Correct Answer
- D.60%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Today, crime rates have declined by 50 per cent, and people feel safer. This renewed security has laid the foundation for economic growth."
What is the primary objective of the 'Udyog Vishwas' policy framework as described in the article?
- A.To increase state tax revenue by auditing large corporations.
- B.To address the trust deficit between the government and job creators through regulatory reforms.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote agricultural exports by providing subsidies to farmers.
- D.To decentralise power by strengthening local urban bodies.
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Explanation
The article states: "The third phase, Udyog Vishwas, addresses this trust deficit." It aims to replace complex, punitive regulations with a principles-based approach to decriminalisation, thereby building partnership and trust with enterprises.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the operations of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramula Rail Link (USBRL)?
- A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- B.Ministry of Railways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region
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Explanation
The Indian Railways, which operates under the Ministry of Railways, is responsible for the construction and operation of railway lines including the USBRL project in Kashmir.
Consider the following statements regarding the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramula Rail Link (USBRL):
1. The fully operational 272-km line was inaugurated on June 6, 2025.
2. The Chenab Bridge on this route is the world's second-highest railway arch bridge.
3. The T-50 tunnel on the Katra–Banihal section is India's longest operational transportation tunnel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the USBRL became fully operational on June 6, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Chenab Bridge is the world's highest (not second-highest) railway arch bridge at 359 meters. Statement 3 is correct as the article states T-50 is India's longest operational transportation tunnel (12.77 km).
According to the article, what percentage of the total 203 freight rakes transported to Anantnag between August 2025 and March 2026 were loaded with cement?
- A.65%
- B.70%
- C.76%✓ Correct Answer
- D.80%
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Explanation
The article states that 155 out of the total 203 rakes were loaded with cement. This constitutes approximately 76% of the total freight rakes.
What is a primary economic implication of the freight movement on the Kashmir rail link, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It has primarily reduced passenger travel time between Jammu and Srinagar.
- B.It has created a two-way supply chain, transporting inbound construction material and outbound agricultural produce.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It has led to the immediate closure of the historic Jammu-Srinagar national highway.
- D.Its main purpose is to serve as a dedicated corridor for military logistics only.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes the two-way freight movement: cement and cars coming into Kashmir for construction/development, and apples (the Valley's leading produce) going out to markets. This stabilizes supply chains and boosts the regional economy.
As per the news, which Constitutional Article empowers the state to legislate for social reform concerning religious practices?
- A.Article 25(2)(b)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 26(b)
- C.Article 15(3)
- D.Article 29(2)
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Explanation
Justice B.V. Nagarathna explicitly stated that if there is polarization, the state will step in under Article 25(2)(b) for reform. Article 26(b) deals with denominational autonomy, while Articles 15(3) and 29(2) relate to special provisions for women and cultural/educational rights, respectively.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court hearing on Sabarimala:
1. The bench hearing the case is a nine-judge bench headed by the Chief Justice of India.
2. The court stated that the autonomy of religious denominations under Article 26(b) allows them to block public roads for festivals.
3. One of the questions before the court is the meaning of the expression 'Sections of Hindus' in Article 25(2)(b).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a nine-judge bench headed by CJI Surya Kant. Statement 2 is incorrect; Justice B.V. Nagarathna explicitly said religious activity cannot be done by blocking all roads. Statement 3 is correct as it is listed as the sixth question for consideration by the court.
On which date did the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, by a 4:1 majority, lift the age restriction on women visitors to the Sabarimala temple?
- A.September 26, 2018
- B.September 28, 2018✓ Correct Answer
- C.October 1, 2018
- D.November 14, 2018
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Explanation
The article's background section clearly states: 'On September 28, 2018, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, by a 4:1 majority, lifted the age restriction on women visitors...' The other dates are close distractors.
As discussed in the Supreme Court hearing, what is the primary constitutional basis for the state to intervene in a religious denomination's practices?
- A.To protect the denomination's autonomy under Article 26(b).
- B.To ensure public order, morality, and health under Article 25(1).
- C.To legislate for social reform and welfare under Article 25(2)(b).✓ Correct Answer
- D.To uphold the right to equality under Article 14.
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Explanation
Justice B.V. Nagarathna's remark, as quoted, directly links state intervention to Article 25(2)(b) when there is polarization. While public order (Article 25(1)) is a general limitation, the specific power for social reform is enshrined in Article 25(2)(b).
The Lokniti-CSDS study mentioned in the news is a research program under which institution?
- A.Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)
- B.Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER)
- D.Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS)
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Explanation
Lokniti is the research program on Indian democracy and elections under the Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS), Delhi. This is a key institution for political data in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the Lokniti-CSDS study discussed in the article:
1. The study shows that low political engagement among women is confined to specific socio-economic groups.
2. It indicates that a large majority of women are active in electoral processes beyond just voting.
3. It suggests that quotas alone may not overcome deeper structural barriers limiting women's political participation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the pattern of low engagement 'cuts across socio-economic groups', meaning it is not confined to specific sections. Statement 2 is incorrect as the study shows 74-84% of women are 'not at all active' beyond voting. Statement 3 is correct as it is the core argument of the article, highlighting that reservation's impact is shaped by existing inequalities.
According to the Lokniti-CSDS study cited in the article, what percentage range of women reported being 'not at all active' in electoral processes beyond voting?
- A.50%-65%
- B.60%-75%
- C.74%-84%✓ Correct Answer
- D.85%-95%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'a large majority of women (74%-84%) report being "not at all active" in electoral processes beyond voting.' This is the key data point from the study. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is the primary implication of the Lokniti-CSDS study findings for policies like the Women's Reservation Bill?
- A.That quotas are unnecessary as women are already highly politically active.
- B.That legal reservation alone is sufficient to ensure increased and sustained political representation for women.
- C.That the effectiveness of quotas is likely to be mediated by existing structural inequalities related to class, caste, etc.✓ Correct Answer
- D.That the main barrier is low voter turnout among women, which must be addressed first.
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Explanation
The article's central argument is that while reservation addresses underrepresentation, its impact is 'shaped by existing inequalities.' The study's finding of widespread political inactivity beyond voting, cutting across groups, supports this. It implies quotas need complementary measures to tackle deeper barriers.
The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is mentioned in the Indian Constitution under which article?
- A.Article 32
- B.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 51A
- D.Article 368
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Explanation
Article 44 of the Constitution, under the Directive Principles of State Policy, states that "The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India."
Consider the following statements regarding the Madhya Pradesh UCC committee:
1. The committee is chaired by a former Supreme Court judge.
2. The committee has been asked to submit a draft bill within six months.
3. The committee will examine the UCC models adopted by Uttarakhand and Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The committee is chaired by former Supreme Court judge Ranjana Prasad Desai. Statement 2 is incorrect: The committee has a 60-day (not six-month) deadline to submit a draft bill. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the committee will examine models adopted by other states, particularly Uttarakhand and Gujarat.
According to the article, what percentage of Madhya Pradesh's population belongs to Scheduled Tribes, making the UCC proposal particularly sensitive?
- A.Over 15%
- B.Over 21%✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 25%
- D.Over 30%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "With more than 21 per cent of Madhya Pradesh’s population belonging to Scheduled Tribes, the issue carries significant political sensitivity."
What is a primary constitutional concern raised by tribal groups regarding the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code in Madhya Pradesh?
- A.It violates the Right to Equality under Article 14.
- B.It overrides protections granted under the Fifth Schedule and PESA Act.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It contradicts the provisions of the Fundamental Duties.
- D.It conflicts with the powers of the Governor under Article 163.
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Explanation
Tribal leaders argue that constitutional protections under the Fifth Schedule and laws like PESA safeguard their distinct traditions and systems of self-governance, and a uniform legal framework could undermine these protections.
Which organization's data is cited in the article for showing power demand and shortfall figures?
- A.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)
- B.Grid Controller of India (Grid India)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Power System Operation Corporation (POSOCO)
- D.Indian Energy Exchange (IEX)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Data from the Grid Controller of India (Grid India) shows...' the shortage in meeting peak demand. Grid India is the national grid operator responsible for system operation.
Consider the following statements regarding India's power grid situation as per the article:
1. The peak power demand of 256 GW was recorded during the day and was met without any shortage.
2. The primary reason for the night-time shortfall was a spike in planned maintenance outages in thermal power plants.
3. Spot electricity prices in the Day Ahead Market touched Rs 10 per KWh during the night due to supply stress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article says the daily peak demand was recorded at around 3:45 PM and 'was met without any shortage'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The primary reason was a spike in 'forced and partial outages' (which surged to ~26 GW), not planned outages (which were limited to ~3 GW). Statement 3 is correct: The article states spot prices in the DAM 'touch[ed] the maximum regulatory limit of Rs 10 per kilowatt hour (KWh) at night'.
According to the article, what was the approximate level of forced and partial outages in the power system on the mentioned days, which contributed to the night-time shortage?
- A.About 3 GW
- B.About 10 GW
- C.About 18 GW
- D.About 26 GW✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states that 'forced and partial outages surged to nearly 26 GW'. It further clarifies that forced outages in coal plants stood at ~18 GW and partial outages were ~3-4 GW, totaling ~21 GW from coal, with the remaining from other sources reaching the ~26 GW figure.
What is the fundamental structural challenge for India's power grid highlighted by the night-time strain, as per the analysis in the article?
- A.Insufficient total installed generation capacity across the country.
- B.Over-reliance on imported coal leading to fuel shortages.
- C.The sunset loss of large solar capacity coinciding with high evening demand.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Inefficient power distribution networks causing high transmission losses.
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Explanation
The core challenge identified is the 'duck curve' phenomenon: nearly 150 GW of solar capacity goes offline after sundown, precisely when demand remains high due to cooling needs. This creates a steep ramp-up requirement for conventional plants, which are themselves facing availability issues. The article focuses on this timing mismatch, not on total capacity, fuel imports, or distribution losses.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating and signing Free Trade Agreements like the one with New Zealand?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
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Explanation
The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, is the nodal agency for formulating India's foreign trade policy and negotiating bilateral and multilateral trade agreements. Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal was quoted speaking on the signing.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement:
1. New Zealand has committed to invest $20 billion in India over the next 10 years.
2. The agreement provides duty-free access for 100% of India's exports to New Zealand.
3. India has offered tariff liberalisation on 70.03% of tariff lines, which covers 95% of the bilateral trade value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The investment commitment is over 15 years, not 10 years. Statement 2 is correct as per the Commerce Ministry's statement. Statement 3 is also correct as mentioned in the 'Goods market access' section of the article.
According to the article, what was the value of India's exports to New Zealand in FY26?
- A.$587 million
- B.$711 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.$20 billion
- D.$255.8 million
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'In FY26, India’s exports to New Zealand stood at $711 million...'. Option A is the value of imports, Option C is the investment pledge, and Option D is the services export figure.
A key feature of the India-New Zealand FTA, as highlighted in the article, is New Zealand's commitment to a large investment in India. What is a primary reason cited for including such investment pledges in recent Indian FTAs with developed countries?
- A.To secure technology transfer in defense sectors
- B.To strike a balance as India offers steep tariff relaxation while receiving minor tariff cuts in return✓ Correct Answer
- C.To fulfill obligations under the World Trade Organization
- D.To counter China's Belt and Road Initiative investments
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Explanation
The article states: 'The investment commitment has been a new feature... largely to strike a balance since New Delhi is offering steep tariff relaxation... but is receiving a minor reduction in tariffs in return, as average tariffs in advanced countries are typically 2-3%.' This is the direct reason provided.
The UAE exited which major intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting countries?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- B.Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.International Energy Agency (IEA)
- D.North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the UAE quit the Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). OPEC is the correct organization focused on coordinating petroleum policies among member nations.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The United Arab Emirates (UAE) announced its exit from OPEC and OPEC+ on April 28, 2026.
2. The UAE cited satisfaction with the collective security provided by fellow Arab states as the reason for its exit.
3. The exit is considered a significant blow to the oil exporting groups and their de facto leader, Saudi Arabia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article date. Statement 2 is incorrect; the UAE criticized fellow Arab states for not doing enough to protect it, implying dissatisfaction. Statement 3 is correct as the article describes the exit as a 'heavy blow' to the groups and Saudi Arabia.
According to the article, on which date did the UAE announce its exit from OPEC and OPEC+?
- A.April 26, 2026
- B.April 28, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 30, 2026
- D.May 1, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states 'The United Arab Emirates said on Tuesday (April 28, 2026) it quit Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and OPEC+'. The other dates are close distractors.
What was a primary geopolitical reason cited by the UAE for its decision to leave OPEC and OPEC+?
- A.A desire to increase oil production independently
- B.Disagreements over production quota allocations
- C.Criticism of fellow Arab states for insufficient protection against Iranian attacks✓ Correct Answer
- D.To join a competing energy alliance like the IEA
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Explanation
The article mentions the UAE criticized fellow Arab states for 'not doing enough to protect it from numerous Iranian attacks during the war'. This security concern is highlighted as a key reason for the exit, linking geopolitics directly to economic alliance decisions.
The Vikram VT 21 project has been co-developed by the Vehicles Research and Development Establishment (VRDE). Under which premier national organisation does VRDE function?
- A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- B.Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)
- C.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Vehicles Research and Development Establishment (VRDE) is a premier facility of the DRDO. DRDO is the apex body under the Ministry of Defence for military R&D in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Vikram VT 21 Advanced Armoured Platform:
1. It includes both wheeled and tracked variants.
2. It is designed to replace the Army's T-72 main battle tank fleet.
3. It currently has an indigenous content of about 65 percent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the project includes two variants: wheeled and tracked. Statement 2 is incorrect; the platform is pitched to replace the ageing BMP-2 fleet of Infantry Combat Vehicles, not the T-72 tanks. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's mention of 'about 65 percent of the system is made in India'.
What is the target percentage for increasing the indigenous content of the Vikram VT 21 platform, as mentioned in the article?
- A.75%
- B.80%
- C.85%
- D.90%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article clearly states, 'with plans to increase indigenous content to 90 per cent.' Therefore, 90% is the specific target figure mentioned, while 75%, 80%, and 85% are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary strategic need that has led to the Indian Army's requirement for a Futuristic Infantry Combat Vehicle (FICV), as per the article?
- A.To reduce the overall defence budget by phasing out expensive imported systems.
- B.To keep pace with modern network-centric warfare and replace the ageing BMP-2 fleet.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To exclusively enhance offensive capabilities for cross-border operations.
- D.To standardize vehicle platforms across all branches of the armed forces.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the requirement 'stems from the need to replace the ageing BMP-2 fleet... and keep pace with modern, network-centric warfare.' The other options, while potentially related to broader defence goals, are not cited as the primary reason in the provided content.
Which central ministry was informed by WhatsApp about the ban on accounts linked to digital arrests, as per the Supreme Court documents?
- A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
The article states that WhatsApp asserted the details of the ban to the Home Ministry. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for internal security and law enforcement in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. WhatsApp banned accounts based on isolated reports from individual users.
2. The probe used 'seed' inputs from Indian probe agencies to map entire criminal networks.
3. The majority of the scam operations targeted were active within India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clarifies that warnings were not treated as isolated reports but as a 'seed' for broader mapping. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of the probe methodology. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the networks were mostly active in Cambodia, not within India.
According to the WhatsApp document submitted in the Supreme Court, how many accounts were banned for links to digital arrests?
- A.9,200
- B.9,400✓ Correct Answer
- C.9,600
- D.9,800
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Explanation
The article's headline and content explicitly state that 9,400 accounts were banned. The other options are close distractors to test precise factual recall, a common Prelims tactic.
What was the primary strategic shift in WhatsApp's approach to tackling the scam networks, as highlighted in the news?
- A.Focusing on increasing encryption to protect user privacy.
- B.Launching a public awareness campaign about digital arrests.
- C.Using government 'seed' inputs to disrupt entire criminal networks instead of just single accounts.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Collaborating exclusively with international agencies instead of Indian ones.
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Explanation
The core of the news is the proactive, network-based investigation strategy. The article states warnings were used as a 'seed' to map and disrupt the entire network, moving beyond just shutting down the initial reported account. The other options describe potential actions but are not the primary shift discussed.
Which organization operates and manages the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) platform in India?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Banks' Association (IBA)
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The NPCI, established by RBI and IBA, is the umbrella organization that operates retail payment systems including UPI. RBI regulates payments, but NPCI is the operational entity.
Consider the following statements regarding UPI:
1. According to recent data, UPI processed over 241 billion transactions in the financial year 2025-26.
2. The total value of UPI transactions in FY 2025-26 was reported to be less than ₹300 lakh crore.
3. India accounts for approximately 49% of all real-time digital transactions globally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the value exceeded ₹314 lakh crore, not less than ₹300 lakh crore. Statement 3 is correct as India's share is 49%. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the data cited by the Finance Minister, what is India's share in global real-time digital transactions?
- A.39%
- B.49%✓ Correct Answer
- C.59%
- D.69%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India accounts for 49% of all real-time digital transactions globally. The other options are close distractors.
The massive adoption of UPI, as highlighted by the recent transaction data, primarily contributes to which of the following broader national objectives?
- A.Increasing government's direct tax revenue
- B.Promoting financial inclusion and a cashless economy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reducing the fiscal deficit of the government
- D.Enhancing foreign direct investment in the tech sector
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Explanation
UPI's core objective is to facilitate easy, instant, and low-cost digital payments, bringing more people into the formal financial system and reducing reliance on cash. While it may have secondary effects, its primary impact is on financial inclusion and digitization of payments.
Which central armed police force is primarily responsible for guarding the India-Bangladesh border?
- A.Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
- B.Border Security Force (BSF)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
- D.Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Border Security Force (BSF) as the force that patrols the India-Bangladesh border (IBB) and to whom land needs to be handed over for fencing. The BSF is under the Ministry of Home Affairs and is the primary border guarding force on the India-Pakistan and India-Bangladesh borders.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Bangladesh border fencing issue:
1. The Supreme Court was hearing a challenge to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act when it sought updates on border fencing.
2. The Calcutta High Court imposed a cost of ₹25,000 on the West Bengal government, to be paid from the state exchequer.
3. As per the Centre's affidavit, 78% of the feasible border length in West Bengal is already fenced.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the High Court directed the cost to be paid by the officer from his own pocket, not from the public exchequer. Statement 3 is correct as per the Union Home Secretary's affidavit cited in the news.
According to the Union Home Secretary's affidavit cited in the article, what percentage of the India-Bangladesh border in West Bengal is fenced?
- A.65%
- B.72%
- C.78%✓ Correct Answer
- D.85%
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Explanation
The article states that the reply affidavit by the then Union Home Secretary Ajay Bhalla said that '78% border of feasible length is fenced' along the West Bengal-Bangladesh border. The other options are plausible distractors.
What was the primary reason cited by the Calcutta High Court for imposing a personal cost on the West Bengal government officer?
- A.For delaying the start of the land acquisition process.
- B.For filing an evasive and sketchy report on compliance with the court's order.✓ Correct Answer
- C.For opposing the border fencing project in principle.
- D.For failing to attend the court hearings on the matter.
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Explanation
The April 22 order of the Calcutta High Court explicitly states that it deprecated 'the practice of filing such evasive and sketchy report' and deemed it appropriate to impose the cost. The officer's report was filed after the court's deadline for land transfer had passed with minimal compliance.
Which of the following is the nodal ministry responsible for the creation of new railway zones in India?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Railways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The Ministry of Railways is the nodal ministry responsible for the administration and creation of new zones in Indian Railways, as seen in the article where the Railway Minister made the announcement and the Railway Board provided clarifications.
Consider the following statements regarding the South Coast Railway Zone (SCoR):
1. It is the 18th zone of Indian Railways and is headquartered in Visakhapatnam.
2. It was created solely from the divisions of the South Central Railway zone.
3. Its creation finds its basis in the provisions of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because SCoR was carved out from areas of two zones: East Coast Railway (ECoR) and South Central Railway (SCR). Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 as the foundation for the zone's creation.
According to the article, what is the sanctioned amount for setting up the headquarters of the South Coast Railway Zone?
- A.₹152 crore
- B.₹184 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹210 crore
- D.₹250 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Rs. 184 crore has been sanctioned for the setting up of the South Coast Railway headquarters. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is a primary reason cited in the article for the strategic importance of the newly created South Coast Railway Zone?
- A.To serve as a dedicated high-speed passenger corridor.
- B.To boost tourism connectivity along the southern coastline.
- C.To connect mineral-rich areas with major eastern ports for freight.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To decongest the railway network in metropolitan cities.
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Explanation
The article states that the zone 'connects to the area rich in minerals and natural resources with the important ports on the eastern coast' and is 'set to become one of the important zones for freight loading'. The other options, while potential benefits, are not the primary reason highlighted.
As per the article, which statutory body's examination (NET) is criticized as a 'relic' needing fundamental reimagining?
- A.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
- B.University Grants Commission (UGC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
- D.National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'The UGC-NET, as currently structured, tests neither; it is a relic that needs fundamental reimagining.' The UGC-NET is conducted by the University Grants Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding the problems in Indian higher education as discussed in the article:
1. The system forces every faculty member to be both a teacher and a researcher, which is unrealistic.
2. This conflation has led to a decline in the quality of both teaching and genuine research.
3. The primary solution suggested is a significant increase in government funding for universities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article's core argument is that demanding both roles from everyone is a 'foundational fiction'. Statement 2 is correct as it details outcomes like substandard research and fractured teaching. Statement 3 is incorrect; the proposed solution is a structural 'dual-track' reform, not primarily increased funding.
According to the article, what is identified as a 'structural response to a structural demand' in the Indian academic ecosystem?
- A.The rise of online degree programs
- B.The thriving predatory journal industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.The increase in student exchange programs
- D.The expansion of university campuses
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Explanation
The article states, 'Journals that charge a fee and publish without meaningful peer review are not a fringe phenomenon in India. They are a structural response to a structural demand.' This demand is created by the system forcing all faculty to publish research.
What is the primary objective of the 'dual-track' faculty system proposed in the article?
- A.To reduce the salary burden on universities by hiring more adjunct faculty
- B.To separate administrative and academic duties within university departments
- C.To allow individuals to specialize and excel in either teaching or research based on their aptitude✓ Correct Answer
- D.To create a hierarchy where research professors supervise teaching lecturers
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Explanation
The article argues teaching and research require different temperaments and skills, and it is rare for both to coexist. The dual-track system aims to create 'lecturer or teaching-track positions for those who are gifted educators' and 'research-track positions for those whose primary contribution is knowledge production', with both tracks being equally legitimate.
Which international organization's data is cited in the article regarding the share of global internet traffic carried by subsea cables?
- A.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- B.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- C.International Telecommunication Union (ITU)✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that according to the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), subsea fibre-optic cables carry roughly 99% of global internet traffic. The ITU is the UN agency for ICT issues.
Consider the following statements regarding the issues discussed in the article:
1. The FALCON subsea cable network directly connects India to Gulf countries and is crucial for enterprise data.
2. Satellite networks like Starlink are considered a scalable and cost-effective alternative to subsea cables for global data traffic.
3. A significant portion of India's aluminium production relies on imported scrap, with the Middle East being a major supplier.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions FALCON connects India (via Mumbai) to Gulf countries. Statement 2 is incorrect because experts in the article state satellite networks cannot handle comparable data volumes and are significantly more expensive, hence not a scalable alternative. Statement 3 is correct as the article states India produces nearly half its aluminium via recycled scrap, much imported from regions including the Middle East.
According to the article, approximately what percentage of India's total aluminium production of 4.2 million metric tonnes comes from recycled scrap?
- A.About 30%
- B.About 40%
- C.About 50%✓ Correct Answer
- D.About 60%
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Explanation
The article states: 'India produces nearly half of its 4.2 million metric tonnes of aluminium via recycled scrap...'. 'Nearly half' corresponds to approximately 50%.
What is the primary concern raised by experts regarding the repair of damaged subsea cables in the Strait of Hormuz during the ongoing conflict?
- A.The high cost of specialized repair vessels.
- B.The lack of technical expertise in the region.
- C.Delays due to security risks and difficulties in obtaining permits.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The environmental impact of cable-laying operations.
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Explanation
The article highlights that repair operations may face major delays primarily due to security risks, naval activity, insurance constraints, and 'often one of the biggest problems... is getting permits into the waters where the damage is,' as stated by telecom analyst Alan Mauldin.
The Parliamentary Standing Committee that recommended a review of the UPSC CSAT is related to which Ministry/Department?
- A.Ministry of Education
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs
- C.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article mentions the 'Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice'. This committee oversees the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, which houses the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) that deals with UPSC matters.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on UPSC CSAT review:
1. The Parliamentary Committee has recommended the abolition of the CSAT paper in the UPSC Prelims.
2. The CSAT paper was introduced in the year 2011 and is a qualifying paper requiring 33% marks.
3. The committee also expressed concern over the delayed implementation of reforms suggested by the Baswan Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article clearly states 'The committee did not recommend the abolition of the paper.' Statement 2 is correct as per the article's 'What is CSAT?' section. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the committee flagged delayed implementation of Baswan Committee reforms.
According to the article, what is the qualifying percentage required to pass the UPSC CSAT (Paper 2) of the Preliminary examination?
- A.25%
- B.30%
- C.33%✓ Correct Answer
- D.40%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Candidates must score a minimum of 33 per cent — 66 out of 200 — to qualify.' This is a direct factual recall question from the provided content.
What was the primary concern raised by the Parliamentary Committee regarding the UPSC CSAT paper's design?
- A.That it is too easy and does not filter candidates effectively.
- B.That its quantitative orientation disadvantages candidates from non-science backgrounds.✓ Correct Answer
- C.That it should be made a ranking paper instead of a qualifying paper.
- D.That it does not adequately test English language comprehension.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that the committee found the 'quantitative and analytical orientation of the CSAT paper may pose challenges for candidates from non-science and non-quantitative academic backgrounds.' This directly addresses the equity and level-playing field concern.
Which ministry's official chairs the Inter-Departmental Committee (IDC) mentioned in the news report on digital arrest frauds?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The status report states that the 3rd meeting of the IDC was convened under the Chairmanship of Special Secretary (Internal Security), Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). Internal security matters, including cyber fraud, fall under the purview of the MHA.
Consider the following statements regarding the measures against digital arrest frauds:
1. The Inter-Departmental Committee (IDC) agreed with the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) framework proposed by the RBI prescribing temporary debit holds.
2. The application of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) to such offences is under consideration.
3. The Department of Telecommunications should expedite notification of rules for the Biometric Identity Verification System (BIVS) within three months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the IDC agreed with the RBI's SOP framework. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions the Prevention of Money Laundering Act-2002 (PMLA), not FEMA. Statement 3 is correct as the report urges the Department of Telecommunications to expedite notification of the required rules within three months.
According to the Centre's status report, by when should the Biometric Identity Verification System (BIVS)-based cross-operator SIM monitoring system become operational?
- A.Before March 2026
- B.Before June 2026
- C.Before September 2026
- D.Before December 2026✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The report specifically states that the technical system for national-level visibility of SIM issuance across operators should be implemented within six months after rule notification (within three months), so that the BIVS-based system becomes operational before December 2026.
What is a key proposed measure to prevent 'money-mule' activities in digital arrest frauds, as mentioned in the Centre's report?
- A.Permanent freezing of all suspect accounts
- B.Temporary debit holds on suspicious accounts/amounts✓ Correct Answer
- C.Mandatory biometric verification for all banking transactions
- D.Complete ban on cryptocurrency transactions
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the RBI's proposed Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) framework prescribes temporary debit holds on suspicious amounts/accounts to prevent money-mule activities. Money mules are individuals used to transfer illegally acquired money; temporary holds can disrupt this flow. Other options are not mentioned in the report.
Which ministry of the UAE announced the country's exit from OPEC and OPEC+?
- A.Ministry of Foreign Affairs
- B.Ministry of Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Economy
- D.Ministry of Industry and Advanced Technology
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Explanation
According to the article, the UAE energy ministry issued the statement announcing the decision to exit OPEC and OPEC+. This is the nodal body responsible for the country's energy policy.
Consider the following statements regarding the UAE's exit from OPEC:
1. The UAE was the second-largest oil producer in OPEC at the time of its exit announcement.
2. The UAE joined OPEC in 1967 through its emirate of Abu Dhabi.
3. The decision to exit is effective from May 1, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The UAE was the third-largest producer, not the second (behind Saudi Arabia and Iraq). Statement 2 is correct as per the article: UAE joined in 1967 via Abu Dhabi. Statement 3 is correct: The exit is effective May 1, 2026.
In which year was the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) founded, as mentioned in the article?
- A.1955
- B.1960✓ Correct Answer
- C.1967
- D.1971
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that OPEC was established in 1960 by its founding members. 1967 is the year the UAE joined, and 1971 is when the UAE became a country.
According to its statement, what is a primary reason cited by the UAE for its decision to exit OPEC and OPEC+?
- A.To immediately flood the market with oil and lower global prices
- B.To align more closely with the energy policies of Western nations
- C.To pursue a long-term strategic vision focused on domestic energy production✓ Correct Answer
- D.To protest against the ongoing war in West Asia
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Explanation
The UAE energy ministry's statement, quoted in the article, says the decision "reflects the UAE’s long-term strategic and economic vision and evolving energy profile, including accelerated investment in domestic energy production." The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which ministry/department is the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) under?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The NCB is the central agency for drug control in India and operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), as mentioned in the article's context of the NCB submitting its roadmap to the MHA.
Consider the following statements regarding Operation Global-Hunt:
1. It is a three-year roadmap by the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) to target 100 drug fugitives abroad.
2. The operation solely relies on domestic police actions within India.
3. Its first success was the extradition of Mohammad Salim Dola from Turkey.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Operation Global-Hunt is a three-year NCB roadmap targeting 100 fugitives. Statement 2 is incorrect; the operation involves international coordination, Interpol notices, and extradition, not just domestic actions. Statement 3 is correct as Dola's extradition from Turkey is cited as the first target under the operation.
According to the article, what is the target number of drug fugitives to be dismantled under Operation Global-Hunt?
- A.50 fugitives
- B.75 fugitives
- C.100 fugitives✓ Correct Answer
- D.150 fugitives
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Operation Global-Hunt is a mission launched to dismantle 100 drug networks run by India's fugitives abroad.
What is the primary strategic objective of Operation Global-Hunt as described in the news?
- A.To increase seizures of drugs within Indian borders.
- B.To promote rehabilitation programs for drug addicts.
- C.To hunt down and dismantle international drug networks operated by fugitives abroad.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To regulate the pharmaceutical industry more strictly.
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Explanation
The core objective of Operation Global-Hunt is to proactively target and dismantle the networks of drug kingpins who are fugitives abroad, using tools like extradition and Interpol notices, as opposed to focusing only on domestic seizures or rehabilitation.
The article mentions a retired naval officer formerly associated with a Delhi-based think tank. Which think tank is referenced?
- A.Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses (IDSA)
- B.Centre for Policy Research (CPR)
- C.Observer Research Foundation (ORF)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Vivekananda International Foundation (VIF)
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Explanation
The article's author bio states the writer is a "former head of the maritime policy initiative at ORF, New Delhi." This directly identifies the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) as the referenced think tank.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis discussed in the article:
1. The crisis has led to the suspension of the 'transit passage' right as defined under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
2. The disruption has caused a sharp increase in war-risk insurance premiums, significantly deterring commercial transit.
3. The article compares the potential scale of global economic disruption to the oil crises of the 1970s.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the right of transit passage is 'neither acknowledged nor reliably assured' in the current contest, but UNCLOS itself does not allow for its suspension; the crisis represents a practical, not legal, suspension. Statement 2 is correct as the article explicitly mentions 'War-risk insurance premiums have been withdrawn or repriced to prohibitive levels, significantly deterring commercial transit.' Statement 3 is correct as the article states, 'the shocks could ripple across the global economy on a scale comparable to the oil crises of the 1970s.'
According to the article, what is the primary legal concept intended to ensure narrow waterways like the Strait of Hormuz are not subject to unilateral control?
- A.Right of Innocent Passage
- B.Doctrine of Contiguous Zone
- C.Principle of Transit Passage✓ Correct Answer
- D.Concept of Archipelagic Waters
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'The transit passage concept was intended to ensure that narrow waterways such as Hormuz are not subject to unilateral control; the right it establishes is non-suspendable and legally binding.' The other options are different concepts within the UNCLOS framework.
What is the 'calibrated pragmatism' approach suggested in the article for India regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis?
- A.Joining a multilateral naval coalition to patrol the strait.
- B.Imposing sanctions on both the US and Iran to force a resolution.
- C.Ensuring safe transit for Indian shipping via naval escorts while diplomatically working to restore normalcy.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Diverting all energy imports to overland routes to avoid the strait completely.
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Explanation
The article explicitly outlines India's appropriate response: 'Operationally, India must ensure the safe transit of Indian shipping through naval escorts and careful deconfliction... Diplomatically, New Delhi must work to underscore the wider stakes involved and support efforts to restore a measure of normalcy to the strait.' This encapsulates the 'calibrated pragmatism' approach.
Which constitutional body is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in India?
- A.The Parliament
- B.The Supreme Court of India
- C.The Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.The President of India
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Explanation
Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India (ECI). The ECI is the permanent constitutional body mentioned in the article as conducting the Special Intensive Revision.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on electoral roll purges:
1. The Election Commission of India used the term 'logical discrepancy' to delete voters during a Special Intensive Revision.
2. The 'logical discrepancy' category is explicitly defined and authorized under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
3. The voter deletions affected states including West Bengal, Assam, and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states this categorisation is 'unknown to the election law'. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists these states/UTs. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, how many states and union territories were specifically mentioned as being affected by the voter deletions under the Special Intensive Revision?
- A.3 States
- B.4 States and 1 UT✓ Correct Answer
- C.5 States
- D.4 States
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Explanation
The article explicitly lists four states (Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal) and one union territory (Puducherry) as being affected. The total count is five entities, but the correct description is four states and one union territory.
What is the primary constitutional concern raised by the use of the 'logical discrepancy' category for voter deletion, as per the article?
- A.It increases the administrative cost of elections.
- B.It may violate the principle of universal adult suffrage under Article 326.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It gives undue advantage to the ruling party in power.
- D.It contradicts the model code of conduct issued by the ECI.
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Explanation
The article frames the issue as raising 'constitutional questions'. The core constitutional principle at stake is the right to vote based on universal adult suffrage, which is enshrined in Article 326. Deleting voters without a clear legal basis risks violating this fundamental right.
The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a specialized agency of which international body?
- A.World Trade Organization
- B.United Nations✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Bank
- D.International Court of Justice
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Explanation
The IMO is a specialized agency of the United Nations, established to promote maritime safety and security and prevent pollution from ships. This is a core static GK fact relevant to international organizations.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The IMO Secretary-General addressed the UN General Assembly on the issue of maritime safety in the Strait of Hormuz.
2. The principle of freedom of navigation was declared as non-negotiable and applicable only in Exclusive Economic Zones.
3. The IMO rejected any imposition of tolls or discriminatory transit measures for passage through straits used for international navigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the IMO addressed the UN Security Council, not the General Assembly. Statement 2 is incorrect because the principle of freedom of navigation applies to the high seas and EEZs, but the non-negotiable declaration in this context was about straits used for international navigation. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's content.
Who is the Secretary-General of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) as mentioned in the article addressing the UN Security Council?
- A.Kitack Lim
- B.Arsenio Dominguez✓ Correct Answer
- C.António Guterres
- D.Peter Thomson
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions IMO Secretary-General Mr. Arsenio Dominguez. Kitack Lim is a former IMO Secretary-General. António Guterres is the UN Secretary-General, and Peter Thomson is the UN Secretary-General's Special Envoy for the Ocean.
What was the primary objective of the IMO Secretary-General's address to the UN Security Council as per the news?
- A.To announce new environmental regulations for shipping emissions.
- B.To secure funding for maritime security patrols in the Indian Ocean.
- C.To uphold the principle of freedom of navigation and reject transit tolls in international straits.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To propose the creation of a new UN agency for maritime dispute resolution.
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Explanation
The core message of the address, as stated in the article, was to call on states to uphold freedom of navigation and reject any imposition of tolls or discriminatory measures for passage through straits like the Strait of Hormuz. The other options are not mentioned in the provided content.
Which ministry sought Microsoft's response regarding its suspension of services to Nayara Energy in 2025?
- A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- B.Ministry of External Affairs
- C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
As per the article, the IT Ministry (Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology) sought Microsoft's response on why it had suspended services to Nayara Energy. This ministry is the nodal body for information technology policy in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the government's push for 'Made in India' cloud systems:
1. The move is aimed at companies in critical sectors like energy, telecom, and banking.
2. It was primarily triggered by a 2025 incident where Google blocked an Indian company's access to its cloud services.
3. A key challenge identified is that domestic cloud systems currently lag behind their foreign counterparts in capability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions these sectors. Statement 2 is incorrect; the trigger was Microsoft (not Google) blocking Nayara Energy. Statement 3 is correct as the article states Indian-made products are 'not at the same level as their foreign counterparts yet'.
According to the article, what percentage of Nayara Energy is held by the Russian oil giant Rosneft?
- A.24.56%
- B.49.13%✓ Correct Answer
- C.51.00%
- D.74.87%
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Explanation
The article states that Russian oil giant Rosneft holds 49.13% in Nayara Energy. This ownership link was the reason for EU sanctions, which subsequently led to Microsoft's action.
What is the primary objective behind the government's consideration to mandate 'Made in India' sovereign cloud systems for critical sectors?
- A.To reduce the cost of digital services for Indian companies
- B.To increase India's exports of cloud computing software
- C.To strengthen data security and reduce dependency on foreign cloud providers✓ Correct Answer
- D.To create more jobs in the domestic IT hardware manufacturing sector
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Explanation
As per the article, the move is aimed at 'reducing dependence on foreign cloud providers and strengthening data security' and to 'insure against geopolitical risks' following the Nayara Energy incident. The other options are potential secondary effects but not the primary objective stated.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 28 April 2026?▼
This page contains 116 current affairs questions from 28 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 28 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20–40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023, is which Constitutiona…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Women's Reserv…
- Q3. According to the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) report cited …
- Q4. is the primary constitutional reason cited in the article for …
- Q5. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) is headquartered in …
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the news topics: …
- Q7. According to the article, what percentage of India's petroleum…
- Q8. is the primary objective behind the government's proposed mand…
- Q9. B.R. Ambedkar served as the Labour Member in which colonial-er…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding B.R. Ambedkar's co…
- Q11. According to the amendments introduced under Ambedkar's influe…
- Q12. was a primary constitutional outcome of B.R. Ambedkar's work o…
- Q13. As per the Supreme Court order, which body is responsible for …
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q15. is the minimum number of years of practice required for advoca…
- Q16. is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's directive to c…
- Q17. constitutional article is fundamentally protected by the Supre…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
- Q19. In which year did the Karnataka High Court uphold the convicti…
- Q20. is the primary legal implication of the Supreme Court's distin…
- Q21. commission has taken suo motu cognisance of the student suicid…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the student suicid…
- Q23. According to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) 2023 rep…
- Q24. is identified as a key systemic factor contributing to the stu…
- Q25. The 'Udyog Vishwas' policy framework mentioned in the article …
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh's de…
- Q27. According to the article, what is the reported decline in crim…
- Q28. is the primary objective of the 'Udyog Vishwas' policy framewo…
- Q29. ministry is primarily responsible for the operations of the Ud…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Udhampur–Srina…
- Q31. According to the article, what percentage of the total 203 fre…
- Q32. is a primary economic implication of the freight movement on t…
- Q33. As per the news, which Constitutional Article empowers the sta…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q35. On which date did the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, b…
- Q36. As discussed in the Supreme Court hearing, what is the primary…
- Q37. The Lokniti-CSDS study mentioned in the news is a research pro…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
- Q39. According to the Lokniti-CSDS study cited in the article, what…
- Q40. is the primary implication of the Lokniti-CSDS study findings …
- Q41. The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is mentioned in the Indian Consti…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Madhya Pradesh…
- Q43. According to the article, what percentage of Madhya Pradesh's …
- Q44. is a primary constitutional concern raised by tribal groups re…
- Q45. organization's data is cited in the article for showing power …
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding India's power grid…
- Q47. According to the article, what was the approximate level of fo…
- Q48. is the fundamental structural challenge for India's power grid…
- Q49. ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating and signing …
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the India-New Zeal…
- Q51. According to the article, what was the value of India's export…
- Q52. A key feature of the India-New Zealand FTA, as highlighted in …
- Q53. The UAE exited which major intergovernmental organization of o…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q55. According to the article, on which date did the UAE announce i…
- Q56. was a primary geopolitical reason cited by the UAE for its dec…
- Q57. The Vikram VT 21 project has been co-developed by the Vehicles…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Vikram VT 21 A…
- Q59. is the target percentage for increasing the indigenous content…
- Q60. is the primary strategic need that has led to the Indian Army'…
- Q61. central ministry was informed by WhatsApp about the ban on acc…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. What…
- Q63. According to the WhatsApp document submitted in the Supreme Co…
- Q64. was the primary strategic shift in WhatsApp's approach to tack…
- Q65. organization operates and manages the Unified Payments Interfa…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding UPI: 1. According…
- Q67. According to the data cited by the Finance Minister, what is I…
- Q68. The massive adoption of UPI, as highlighted by the recent tran…
- Q69. central armed police force is primarily responsible for guardi…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Banglade…
- Q71. According to the Union Home Secretary's affidavit cited in the…
- Q72. was the primary reason cited by the Calcutta High Court for im…
- Q73. of the following is the nodal ministry responsible for the cre…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the South Coast Ra…
- Q75. According to the article, what is the sanctioned amount for se…
- Q76. is a primary reason cited in the article for the strategic imp…
- Q77. As per the article, which statutory body's examination (NET) i…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the problems in In…
- Q79. According to the article, what is identified as a 'structural …
- Q80. is the primary objective of the 'dual-track' faculty system pr…
- Q81. international organization's data is cited in the article rega…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the issues discuss…
- Q83. According to the article, approximately what percentage of Ind…
- Q84. is the primary concern raised by experts regarding the repair …
- Q85. The Parliamentary Standing Committee that recommended a review…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the news on UPSC C…
- Q87. According to the article, what is the qualifying percentage re…
- Q88. was the primary concern raised by the Parliamentary Committee …
- Q89. ministry's official chairs the Inter-Departmental Committee (I…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the measures again…
- Q91. According to the Centre's status report, by when should the Bi…
- Q92. is a key proposed measure to prevent 'money-mule' activities i…
- Q93. ministry of the UAE announced the country's exit from OPEC and…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the UAE's exit fro…
- Q95. In which year was the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting …
- Q96. According to its statement, what is a primary reason cited by …
- Q97. ministry/department is the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) under?
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding Operation Global-H…
- Q99. According to the article, what is the target number of drug fu…
- Q100. is the primary strategic objective of Operation Global-Hunt as…
- Q101. The article mentions a retired naval officer formerly associat…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q103. According to the article, what is the primary legal concept in…
- Q104. is the 'calibrated pragmatism' approach suggested in the artic…
- Q105. constitutional body is responsible for the superintendence, di…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the news on electo…
- Q107. According to the article, how many states and union territorie…
- Q108. is the primary constitutional concern raised by the use of the…
- Q109. The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a specialized…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q111. is the Secretary-General of the International Maritime Organiz…
- Q112. was the primary objective of the IMO Secretary-General's addre…
- Q113. ministry sought Microsoft's response regarding its suspension …
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the government's p…
- Q115. According to the article, what percentage of Nayara Energy is …
- Q116. is the primary objective behind the government's consideration…